Get Real 4A0-100 Quesions Pass Alcatel-Lucent Certification Exams Easily [Q116-Q139]

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NEW QUESTION # 116
Which of the following statements regarding TCP is TRUE?

  • A. The SYN flag is used to identify congestion in the network.
  • B. The NACK flag is set on confirmation segments to acknowledge FCS errors.
  • C. The window size is transmitted in all TCP segments to communicate MTU limitations of lower layer protocols to upper layer applications.
  • D. Sequence numbers are used to ensure that the data received is offered to the application in the correct order.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 117
What happens in a TCP session if a segment is not acknowledged within a certain time period?

  • A. The TCP session is terminated.
  • B. An ICMP destination unreachable message is sent.
  • C. The missing segment is retransmitted.
  • D. The sender sends the next segment.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume B


NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following statements best describes a hub?

  • A. A device that receives and forwards data based on the MAC destination address.
  • B. A device that receives and replicates data without layer-2 header inspection.
  • C. A device used to connect cables with signal amplification.
  • D. A device that receives and forwards data based on the layer-3 destination address.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Ahubis aphysical layer (Layer 1)networking device used to connect multiple Ethernet devices in a network.
Unlike switches or routers, hubs donot inspect or process frame headers. Instead, they perform a simple task:
* Receive a signal (electrical or optical) on one port
* Replicate that signal identically to all other ports
This means the hubdoes not examine Layer 2 (MAC addresses) or Layer 3 (IP addresses)and doesnot perform intelligent forwarding. It merelybroadcasts all incoming traffic to every other connected device, often resulting inhigh collision domainsand poor efficiency.
* Option Adescribes arepeater, not a hub.
* Option Cdescribes aswitch(Layer 2 device).
* Option Ddescribes arouter(Layer 3 device).
* Option Bis correct: A hub does not inspect headers and replicates traffic blindly.
Reference:
Nokia IP Networking Fundamentals Study Guide - Chapter: "Network Devices and OSI Model" CompTIA Network+ and Cisco CCNA foundational guides (for universally accepted hardware behavior)


NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? Choose two

  • A. A router ID is not required by OSPF.
  • B. On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if router-id is not explicitly set.
  • C. The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.
  • D. The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 120
In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. later it
receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7 do with the
LSA received from R8?

  • A. R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.
  • B. R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.
  • C. R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.
  • D. R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a copy
    to its neighbors.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

  • A. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to
    1023 and are assigned by IANA.
  • B. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known
    port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
  • C. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and
    are assigned by IANA.
  • D. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and
    can have any value.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 122
What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach network 192.168.5.0/27?

  • A. An eBGP peering session with router R4
  • B. An iBGP peering session with router R5
  • C. iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4
  • D. An iBGP peering session with router R5, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 123
As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?

  • A. Host A or B will retry the transmission.
  • B. Host A and B will generate a jam signal.
  • C. A back-off timer is started by Host A or B.
  • D. Listening hosts will request retransmission.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 124
What is the purpose of the broadcast address?

  • A. Provides an address to refer to a specific group of devices in a given network.
  • B. Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.
  • C. Provides an address to refer to a group of devices having the same IP addresses in different Layer 2 networks.
  • D. Provides an address to refer to a single device on a given network.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume A


NEW QUESTION # 125
Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with
other BGP speakers?

  • A. UDP port 22.
  • B. TCP port 22.
  • C. TCP port 179.
  • D. UDP port 179.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 126
What is the function of a Routing Table Manager (RTM)?

  • A. To provide a CLI interface that allows the network operator to install static routes in the routing table.
  • B. To find the best path to the destination network and install it in the routing table - based on the metrics of the routing protocol.
  • C. To choose the route with the lowest preference and install it in the routing table - based on the routing protocol preference values.
  • D. To provide a CLI interface that allows the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the router.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 127
How many DS-3 frames can be transported in an OC-3 frame?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 128
A switch with the MAC FDB shown receives an Ethernet frame with source MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0a and destination MAC address 00:00:8c:01:00:0c. On which port is the frame forwarded?

  • A. 1/1/2
  • B. 1/1/3
  • C. 1/1/1
  • D. 1/1/4

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 129
Which of the following protocols belongs to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose 2)

  • A. BGP
  • B. Ethernet
  • C. IS-IS
  • D. X.500
  • E. OSPF

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 130
What next-hop should be used on CR1 to configure a default route to router R1?

  • A. 10.1.1.1
  • B. 10.2.3.1
  • C. 192.168.2.0
  • D. 10.2.3.2

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of the Transport Layer in the TCP/IP stack?

  • A. Provides a data transport service for routing and control protocols such as OSPF and ICMP.
  • B. Defines a standard method for framing data for transmission on the physical network medium.
  • C. Provides a universal address plan to uniquely identify every device in the network.
  • D. Provides a data transport service to higher protocol layers.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 132
What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

  • A. STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s
  • B. STS-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s
  • C. STS-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s
  • D. STS-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 133
Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

  • A. Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.
  • B. Once an IP filter is applied it cannot be modified.
  • C. An IP filter is applied to allow or deny IP packets into a network.
  • D. An IP filter is used to examine an IP packet and its contents.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following routing protocols cannot be used between routers R2 and R4?

  • A. iBGP
  • B. Static Routing
  • C. IS-IS
  • D. eBGP
  • E. OSPF

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 135
Using Q-in-Q Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) stacking, how does a carrier differentiate one customers traffic from that of another?

  • A. The PE switch assigns a customer-specific priority label to the customers traffic.
  • B. The PE switch replaces the customers VLAN tag with a carrier-assigned tag.
  • C. The PE switch adds a second VLAN tag to identify the customers traffic on the carriers network.
  • D. The provider edge (PE) switch adds an additional field called a PE tag to the customers Layer 2 data.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 136
What is the meaning of carrier sense in the CSMA/CD algorithm?

  • A. The host will only transmit upon a timer expiry.
  • B. The host will retransmit the frame if it detects a collision during transmission.
  • C. The host will only transmit data when it detects that no other devices are transmitting.
  • D. The host will only transmit when it receives the token.
  • E. The host is able to detect the transmission speed of the Ethernet switch port to which the host is connected.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 137
How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

  • A. Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3 are two different names for the same protocol.
  • B. Ethernet II can be used on broadcast networks where as 802.3 was designed for point-to-point
    networks.
  • C. Ethernet II identifies its payload type where as 802.3 indicates the frame length.
  • D. Ethernet II identifies its frame length while 802.3 indicates the payload type.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 138
What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for transmission?

  • A. STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s.
  • B. STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s.
  • C. STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s.
  • D. STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 139
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